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  Posted by Gordopolis (U5722839) on Wednesday, 13th August 2008

  I'm reading HG Wells' 'A Short History of the World'.
  It's a cracking read and I can highly recommend it. Even though it seems that modern day archaeologists are making daily breakthroughs, it's interesting to read how much we knew of our history even back in 1920 when this was published.
  
  One thing which confuses me though is Wells' assertion that the army of Agamemnon which beseiged Troy were of the Aryan/Nordic/Dorian Greek stock (the same Greeks who lived and fought through the rise of Athens, martial Sparta, battle Thermopylae etc), rather than the earlier 'Aeachean' stock.
  
  As I had understood until now, The Trojan war was believed to have been fought between two essentially 'Aeachean' peoples, those of the city states on the Greek mainland and isles vs those of Troy. After this, the invasions of the northern peoples (Dorians/Aryans/Nordics) had triggered the Greek dark age, which lasted until the reawakening of Athens in ~800bc.
  
  I thought initially that this might be an 'understanding at the time of writing' issue, but a quick googling suggests the origin of the beseigers of Troy is still undecided.
  
  I'd be really interested to hear your thoughts on this one...

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