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Why didn't rome expand any bigger than IT DID?

• Message 1.Β 

  Posted by Sleepysissco (U4090737) on Wednesday, 24th May 2006

  As far as I remember The Roman Emplre streched from The antoinine wall in the lower half of Scotland, through to the northern parts of Africa, Parts of the Middle east and into cebtral Europe. How is it that the Roman Emporers (ARRRAHGH Hlpe me to spell this word!!!) failed to expand the Empire any further! The Greeks under Alexander the Great expanded as far as India, Why ddn't the romans strech to there? Why did the Romans faiol to strech as far as the whole of Germany and into Russia? how did they fail to conquer the whole of Scotland and spread to Ireland and eventually land at the coastal areas of the U.S!! What went wrong?
  
  PLeas explain
  
  Many thanks
  
  Philp Kennedy

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• Message 2

  , in reply to message 1.

  Posted by DocMike15 (U3167117) on Wednesday, 24th May 2006

  The Empire was more than large enough by the the time of Hadrian, which is broadly when it was at its largest. In fact emperors were always worrying about whether they were overextended (just before the varian disaster, for instance), while at the same time thinking of where to go next. Germany was always going to be difficult, and as far as Scotland & Ireland - there 'was no there there'(low populations, sometimes hostile and frankly not worth the hassle). In the east, there is a genearl retreat from Trajans conquests, since the troops to guard these areas simply were not available, and that the Persians were not going to take such an intrusion into their area lying down.
  Remember that in the days before rapid communication, Empires could only be so large before cracks begun to show. The cash to safeguard the Empire were often less than the taxes paid by a particular territory. The Greek Empire collapsed into smaller parts (such as Ptolomaic Eqypt) fairly quickly.
  In fact the Empire did remarkably well to stay togeather for as long as it did. And no, there is no evidence for Romans getting to the US or indeed China (lots of trade with India though).

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• Message 3

  , in reply to message 2.

  Posted by Sleepysissco (U4090737) on Wednesday, 24th May 2006

  I know that the Romans did'nt pust as far west as Britain, thus meaning that they did'nt reach the U.s but it was just a though, could the romans have done it? but thanks for explaining to me why they didn't do it!
  
  Thanks
  
  Philip Kennedy

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• Message 4

  , in reply to message 3.

  Posted by Coeur_de_Lion (U2789688) on Wednesday, 24th May 2006

  There is some evidence that The Romans had some form of contact with China:
  
  
  
  
  I must say, its quite Fascinating stuff.

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